1) Povidine iodine is used for_____________? a. Burns b. Tinea c. Non-specific vaginitis d. All of the above
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2) B-lactam antibiotics are_____________? a. Penicillin b. Imipenem c. Cephalosporins d. All of the above
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3) Disseminated candidiasis requires intensive therapy with_____________? a. Nystatin b. Amphotericin c. Interferons d. Thiobendazole
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4) The administration of penicillin G along with probenicid result in_____________? a. Increased excretion of probenacid in the feaces and perspiration b. Increased excretion of probenacid in urine c. Increased metabolis of penciling G d. Decreased renal excretion of penciling G
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5) All of the following drugs are components of the MOPP cancer Chemotherapy regimen EXCEPT______________? a. Procarbazine b. Vincristine c. Mechlorethamine d. Methotrexate
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6) Which one of the following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicillin ? a. Cephalexin b. Cloxacillin c. Piperacillin d. Dictoxacillin
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7) Cephalosporin active against pseudomonas aeruginosa______________? a. Cefoperazone b. Cefaclor c. Ceftriaxone d. Cefotaxime
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8) All of the following are topically used sulphonamides except____________? a. Suphacetamide b. Sulphadiazine c. Silversulphadiazine d. Mafenide
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9) One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible______________? a. Amoxicillin b. Penicillin G c. Piperacillin d. Cloxacillin
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10) All of the following antibacterial agents acts by inhibiting cell wall systhesis except________________? a. Carbapenems b. Monobactams c. Cephamycins d. Nitrofurantoins
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11) Nevirapine is a______________? a. Protease inhibitor b. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor d. Fusion inhibitor
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12) A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to Staphylococcus aureus, Which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All the following antibiotics will be appropriate except_____________? a. Vancomycin b. Imipenem c. Teichoplanin d. Linezolid
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13) Which of the following drug does not show renal toxicity_____________? a. Gentamycin b. Streptomycin c. Methoxyprenaline d. Isoflurane
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14) Topical Antifungal agent in candidiasis is______________? a. Clotrimazole b. Clotrimoxazole c. Ornidazole d. Propronolol
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15) AIDS is a disease if the immune system primarily affecting_____________? a. Granulocytes b. Immunoglobulins c. Opsonins d. T lymphocytes
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16) Tetracycline acts on______________? a. 30S ribosomes b. 50S ribosomes c. Cell membrane d. Inhibiting DNA gyrase
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17) Which of the following can be given as a single dose antimalarial for P.vivax malaria______________? a. Atovaquone + Proguanil b. Artemisinin c. Quinine + Tetracycline d. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxime
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18) All are macrolide antibiotics EXCEPT______________? a. Erythromycin b. Roxithromycin c. Neomycin d. Calithromycin
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19) Not true about PnG is______________? a. Destroyed by gastic acid b. Very active against sensitive gram positive coci c. Used for treatment of meningococcal meningitis d. More concentrated in prostatic secretion and intraocular fluids
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20) The most preferred acute emetic for emesis induced by anticancer drugs is______________? a. Ondensetron b. Metaclopromide c. Chlorpromazine d. Dicyclomine
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21) The incidence of allergy to penicillin among various population ranges from______________? a. 1% to 10% b. 10% to 20% c. 20% to 30 d. 30% to 40%
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22) While performing a procedure, a resident doctor injures herself with a suture needle that has been used to stitch a patient with HIV infection for 11 years. He has been complaint with therapy for several years and has recently changed tablets because of alteration in his appearance. His last CD4 count was 360 cells/mm. The doctor is offered post exposure prophylaxis. Which regimen should she take ? a. Ziduvidine and Lamivudine b. Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Indivair c. Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Stavudine d. Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Abacavir
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23) Tetracyclines act by__________________? a. Inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl tRNA to the ribosomal complex b. Inhibiting peptidyl transferase c. Inactivating elongation factors d. Causing misreading of mRNA
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24) Which of the following is not uridopenicillin ? a. Piperacillin b. Mezlocillin c. Azlocillin d. Flucloxacillin
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25) Roxithromycin is______________? a. A long acting macrolide b. Short action quinolone c. Short acting macrolide d. Long acting polypeptide
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26) Not true about piperacilline is_______________? a. Active against pseudomonas aeruginose b. Inhibits Beta-lactamase c. It is a ureido penicillin d. Given parenterally
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27) 1st generation cephalosporin is________________? a. Cephadroxil b. Cefepime c. Cefotaxime d. Cefoperazone
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28) Which of the following is beta-lactam antibiotic ? a. Sulphonamide b. Carbamide c. Cephalosporins d. Ofloxacin
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29) Mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics would be______________? a. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by binding to subunit of bacterial ribosomes b. Inhibition of cell wall peptidoglycan synthesis by competitive inhibition of transpetidases c. Reduced drug causes strand breaks in DNA d. Inhibition of DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA-Dependent RNA polymerase
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30) Following antimicrobials are termed as type I calcimimetics that mimic the stimulatory effect of calcium, on the calcium sensing receptor to inhibit PTH secretion by the parathyroid gland EXCEPT______________? a. Streptomycin b. Hamycin c. Neomycin d. Gentamicin
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