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1) A patient complains of loss of visual acuity, deafness and enlargement of maxilla_______________? a. Paget’s disease b. Osteomalacia c. Fibrous dysplaisa d. Osteogenesis imperfecta
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2) The treatment for a child with cherubism is______________? a. surgical excision b. cosmetic surgery after puberty c. radiation d. Enbloc dissection
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3) Biochemical abnormality associated with osteogenesis imperfecta is increase in______________? a. Alkaline phosphatase b. Acid phosphatase c. Bicarbonate ion d. Phosphorylase enzyme
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4) Of the following which is most common disorder causing pain about the masticatory apparatus including the TMJ_____________? a. Traumatic arthritis b. Trigeminal neuralgia c. Myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome d. Degenerative arthritis
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5) Complication of Rheumatoid arthritis of condyle is______________? a. Fibrous ankylosis b. Subluxation c. Dislocation d. None of the above
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6) Alkaline phosphatase increases in_____________? a. Pagets disease b. Osteopetrosis c. Cherubism d. Fibrous dysplasia e. A and D
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7) The most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is______________? a. Trauma b. Osteoarthritis c. Childhood illness d. Rheumatoid arthritis
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8) Down’s syndrome is associated with all except__________________? a. Retrognathia b. Periodontal disease c. Premature loss off deciduous teeth d. Delayed eruption of deciduous teeth
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9) The primary causative factor for myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome of the TMJ is_______________? a. Infratemporal space infection b. Auriculotemporal neuritis c. Muscular overextension and over contraction d. Otitis media
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10) A 3-year old patient reports of painless progressive bilateral facial swellings. The tentative diagnosis is______________? a. Cherubism b. Monostotic fibrous dysplasia c. Ployostotic fibrous dysplasia d. Central giant cell granuloma
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11) Clavicle is absent is______________? a. Osteogenesis imperfecta b. Cleidocranial dysostosis c. Fibrous dysplasia d. Osteopetrosis
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12) In a middle – aged man the radiograph shows cotton-wool appearance and blood investigation reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. The tentative diagnosis is____________? a. Paget’s disease b. Cherubism c. Fibrous dysplasia d. Osteogenesis imperfecta
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13) Which of the following has the potential of undergoing Spontaneous malignant transformation _____________? a. Osteomalacia b. Albright’s syndrome c. Paget’s disease of bone d. Osteogenesis imperfecta
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14) Which of the following diseases of the bone characteristically exhibits (in contrast to the other three conditions) a single lesion in a single bone ? a. Central giant cell granuloma b. Osteopetrosis c. Paget’s disease of the bone d. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
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15) Osteogenesis imperfecta_____________? a. In a sex-linked disorder of bones that develop that develop in cartilage b. manifests with blue sclera which are pathognomonic of this diease c. May be associated with deafness d. Has associations with amelogenesis imperfecta
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16) Static bone cyst is a cyst developing from______________? a. Infection of Salivary gland in the mandible b. Tissue of the odontogenic apparatus c. Tissue of the oral mucosa d. None of the above
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17) A 6 year old patient with extra cusp on maxillary central incisor is associated with all except______________? a. Mohr’s syndrome b. Sturge-Weber Syndrome c. Rubinstein Taybi Syndrome d. Proteus Syndrome
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18) A 4 year old child with one tooth less than the normal dentition shows large tooth with two crowns and two root canals, the anamoly is______________? a. Dilaceration b. Fusion c. Gemination d. Concrescence
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19) The cyst which is found within the bone at the junction of teh globular process, the lateral nasal process & maxillary process is______________? a. Naso-alveolar cyst b. Globulomaxillary cyst c. Naso palatine cyst d. Mid palatine cyst
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20) The cyst located at the junction of medial nasal process, lateral nasal process and maxillary process is________________? a. Globulomaxillary cyst b. Median palatine cyst c. Nasopalatine cyst d. Nasoalveolar cyst
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21) The torus mandibularis most commonly seen in the region of______________? a. Incisor region b. Canine region c. Molar region d. Premolar region
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22) Dentinal union of two embryologically developing teeth is referred as______________? a. Gemination b. Twinning c. Concrescence d. Fusion
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23) Which one of the following is the cause of dilacerations ? a. Trauma to the tooth germ during root development b. Abnormal displacement of tooth germ during root development c. Abnormal proliferation of enamel epithelium during tooth development d. Abnormal displacement of ameloblasts during tooth formation
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24) Taurodontism is usually seen in_________________? a. Mesiodens b. Incisor with talon/cusp c. Mandibular first molar d. Maxillary premolars
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25) Large pulp chambers are characteristic of all the following conditions except_______________? a. Shell teeth b. Tauradontisam c. Dentin Dysplasia d. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
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26) The inheritance pattern of dentinogensis imperfecta is______________? a. Homozygous b. Autosomal dominant c. Recessive d. X-linked recessive
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27) Which of the following teeth is most likely to be congenitally missing ? a. Maxi. central incisor b. Mandibular canine c. Mand. second premolar d. Maxillary first premolar
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28) In Treacher collin’s syndrome there is________________? a. Upward sloping of the palpebral fissure b. Poorly developed or absence of malar bones c. Progenia and mandibular prognathism d. No loss of hearing
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29) A bony hard asymptomatic swelling found on the midline of the hard palate that appears radiopaque on a radiograph is most likely a__________________? a. Odontoma b. Myxoma c. Boney cyst d. Torus palatinus
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30) Talon’s cusp is characteristic of which syndrome_________________? a. Edward’s syndrome b. Klinefelter’s syndrome c. Rubinstein Taybi syndrome d. Down’s syndrome
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31) Which of the following is unlikely to cause enamel hypoplasia ? a. Rickets b. Fluoride c. Congenital syphilis d. Cleidocranial dysostosis
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32) Shell teeth are more common in this variant of dentinogenesis imperfecta________________? a. Type I b. Type III c. Type II d. Type IIII and I
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33) The 2nd common most supernumerary teeth is________________? a. Mesiodens b. Distal to 3rd molar in maxilla c. Distal to mandibular 3rd molar d. Para molars
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34) Estein Pearls are________________? a. Gingival cyst of newborn b. Gingival cyst of adult c. Enamel pearls d. Epithelial rests
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35) A 15-year old boy shows an inverted pear shaped radiolucency between the upper central incisors. The teeth are normal in all aspects The most likely diagnosis is________________? a. Globulomaxillary cyst b. Nasopalatine cyst c. Aneurysmal cyst d. Dentigerous cyst
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36) In children the most frequently missing permanent teeth are________________? a. First premolars b. Second Premolars c. Max. lateral incisors d. Mandibular lateral incisors
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37) Estesin pearls are cysts that arise from_________________? a. Squamous tissue of the mucosa b. Connective tissue of the mucosa c. Rests of malassez d. Dental lamina
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38) Median rhomboid glossits is associated is associated with_________________? a. Oral cancer b. fungal infection c. Leukoplakia d. Burning sensation of tongue
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39) A 4-year old child has a normal complemented of primary teeth but they are gray and exhibit extensive occlusal and incisal wear. Radiographic examination indicates extensive deposits of secondary dentin in these teeth. Most likely this condition is______________? a. Neonatal hypoplasia b. Amelogenesis imperfecta c. Cleidocranial dysplasia d. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
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40) Geographical tongue, all are true except______________? a. Lesions may be Bilaterally symmetrical on tongue b. No treatment is required c. Is a precancerous condition d. May be related to emotional stress
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