Avionics Mcqs - Set 23

1)   __________ is the exponential path tangent to a horizontal plane several feet below the runway?

a. Flare
b. Ground roll
c. Taxi
d. Tide
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Flare

Explanation:
The flare is an exponential path tangent to a horizontal plane several feet below the runway, which ensures a positive touchdown.


2)   What is done to reduce the error in localizer as the runway is approached?

a. Gain scheduling
b. Reduce speed
c. Increase angle of attack
d. Flare
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Gain scheduling

Explanation:
The localizer gain must be scheduled to decrease as the runway is approached because the surfaces of constant DDM coverage to make the error signal more sensitive to distant displacement.


3)   British Trident and U.S. L-1011 aircraft was certified for category III A operations.

a. True
b. False
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: True

Explanation:
In the early 1970s the British Trident and the U.S. L-1011 aircraft including their autoland systems were certified for Category III A operations in revenue service using guidance information form the ILS and other on-board sensors.


4)   Which of the following systems use a collection of radio transmitting stations to guide an aircraft to a particular runway?

a. ILS
b. GPS
c. VOR
d. RADAR
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: ILS

Explanation:
The instrument landing system or ILS is a collection of radio transmitting stations used to guide aircraft to a specific airport runway, especially during times of limited visibility.


5)   How many ILS systems does an airport require?

a. 0
b. 1
c. Depends upon aircraft size
d. Depends upon density of traffic on the airspace
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Depends upon density of traffic on the airspace

Explanation:
High density airports where a lots of planes land and take off typically have more than one runways with multiple ILS systems. Chicago’s O’Hare airport had an ILS installed on 12 runways in 1996.


6)   _______ standardized the signal in space for the ILS ground transmitting equipment?

a. ISRO
b. FAA
c. ICAO standards and recommended practices
d. NASA
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: ICAO standards and recommended practices

Explanation:
The ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices for the ILS, subscribed by the180 member states, standardize the signal in space for the ILS ground transmitting equipment, no matter where they are manufactured to maintain international standards.


7)   Where is the localizer antenna placed?

a. Beyond the stop end of the runway
b. Start of the runway
c. Along the runway
d. Air traffic control
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Beyond the stop end of the runway

Explanation:
The localizer antenna is centered on the runway beyond the stop end to provide lateral guidance. The glide slope is located beside the runway near the threshold to provide vertical guidance.


8)   Which of the following is used to detect the failure in an ILS?

a. Fail safe ILS
b. Radiation monitors
c. ILS detector
d. ILS failure system is not used anywhere
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Radiation monitors

Explanation:
Radiation monitors are used to detect ILS failure. They are placed at a particular distance away from the runway to check for errors in ILS transmission or drift in the frequency of radiation.


9)   What is the type of polarization is used in ILS systems?

a. Horizontal polarization
b. Vertical polarization
c. Circular polarization
d. No polarization
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Horizontal polarization

Explanation:
Every transmitter in the ILS including the glide slope transmitter, localizer and the marker beacons radiate continuous wave, horizontally polarized, radio frequency energy which can be received by the on-board receiver.


10)   What is the frequency at which the marker beacons operate?

a. 65 MHZ
b. 50 MHZ
c. 150 MHZ
d. 75 MHz
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: 75 MHz

Explanation:
All the marker beacons, all around the world, operate on a single frequency of 75MHz.


11)   Localizer, Glide slope and DME frequencies are paired to each other.

a. True
b. False
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: True

Explanation:
The localizer, glide slope and DME frequencies are paired such that only the localizer frequency is required to tune by the pilot. This hard pairing reduces the pilot’s work load.


12)   What is the type of receiver used for marker beacon?

a. Heterodyne
b. Super Heterodyne
c. Capacitative pick off
d. Crystal controlled
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Crystal controlled

Explanation:
The marker beacon receiver is a dedicated crystal controlled receiver fixed tuned to 75 MHz. This is because all marker beacons use the same frequency.


13)   Which of the following cause multi path signals?

a. Low transmission power
b. Ground reflection
c. Low frequency transmission
d. High frequency transmission
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Ground reflection

Explanation:
Mulit path Signals are created when a part of the original signal take a different path than LOS to reach the receiver. Thus a signal with same information reaches the receiver at multiple times. Multi path signals are created when the actual signal gets reflected from the ground and reaches the receiver.


14)   Which of the following transmits an audio Morse code?

a. Localizer
b. Glide slope transmitter
c. DME
d. Marker beacons
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Localizer

Explanation:
An audible Morse code identification signal is transmitted on the localizer frequency. A voice channel from the control tower may also be provided.


15)   ______________ provides deviation when the aircraft is displaced laterally from the vertical plane of the runway?

a. Localizer
b. Glide slope transmitter
c. DME
d. Marker beacons
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Localizer

Explanation:
The localizer establishes a radiation pattern in space the provides a deviation signal in the aircraft when the aircraft is displaced laterally from the vertical plane containing the runway center line.


16)   What is the signal that are added to the localizer signal, if the beam is narrow, to provide signal coverage?

a. Localizer plus
b. Difference signal
c. Sum signal
d. Clearance signal
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Clearance signal

Explanation:
When the localizer CSB pattern is narrow, to reduce reflections from buildings and other aircraft, the system requires the addition of “clearance” signals to provide 35° coverage in both directions.


17)   What type of antenna is used in the localizer?

a. Long periodic antenna
b. Helical antenna
c. Dipole antenna
d. Parabolic antenna
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Long periodic antenna

Explanation:
Almost all of the localizer antenna is long periodic antenna. It provides unidirectional radiation, can be installed without guy cables and has good broadband characteristics.


18)   Clearance signals can be transmitted from the same array antenna as the localizer signal.

a. True
b. False
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: False

Explanation:
Clearance Signals, when required, can be provided by a separate array antenna specifically for clearance signals. In some designs, both clearance signals and localizer signals are transmitted from different elements of the same array. Nevertheless, the same antenna cannot be used.


19)   What is the type of glide slope that depends on the reflection of signals by the ground?

a. Reflection slope
b. Refraction glide slope
c. Image glide slope
d. Direct glide slope
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Image glide slope

Explanation:
Image array glide slope systems depend on reflections from the ground in the direction of approaching aircraft to form the radiation pattern.


20)   What is the radiation pattern of the marker beacons?

a. Triangle
b. Circle
c. Square
d. Fan shape
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Fan shape

Explanation:
Marker beacons provide pilot alerts along the approach path. Each beacon radiates a fan shaped vertical beam that is approximately ±40° wide along the glide path by ±85° wide perpendicular to the path.


21)   What is the main weakness of the ILS system?

a. Less power
b. Less range
c. More noise
d. Environment sensitivity
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Environment sensitivity

Explanation:
The main weakness of the ILS system was its sensitivity towards the environmental factors. Since the frequency used by the system is in MHz, it was more susceptible to atmospheric and weather interference.


22)   What does the MLS use to overcome the weakness of ILS system?

a. Narrow beam width antennas
b. More power
c. Filers for separating noise
d. Array of antennas
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Narrow beam width antennas

Explanation:
The main weakness of the ILS system is eliminated by using narrow beam width antennas which are physically small since the frequency is high. As frequency increases antenna size decreases.


23)   Which of the following is not one of the basic components of the MLS system?

a. Azimuth ground station
b. Elevation ground station
c. DME
d. Radar
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Radar

Explanation:
A basic MLS consists of azimuth and elevation ground stations and a conventional DME for 3D positioning on approach course to 40° on either side of center line and to 15° elevation above the runway.


24)   Why is a back azimuth station used in some MLS?

a. Better range
b. Less noise
c. Missed approach
d. Back up for main azimuth station
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Missed approach

Explanation:
An expanded MLS system uses back azimuth stations. It is generally used for departure and for missed approaches. It provides lateral guidance to 40° on either side of the center line.


25)   What is the number of channels in the MLS system?

a. 10
b. 50
c. 4000
d. 200
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: 200

Explanation:
The MLS station transmit both angle and data functions on one of 200 frequencies between 5031.0 and 5190.7 MHz. The relatively high number of channels allows the use of multiple MLS in metropolitan cities.


26)   Which of the following determines the required transmission power in MLS?

a. Noise
b. Bit error rate
c. Runway length
d. Aircraft size
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Bit error rate

Explanation:
The acceptable bit error rate of the differential phase shift keying (DPSK) transmissions at the 20-nmi limit determines the transmitter power needed in the ground stations.


27)   Using an audio tone to encode angles is an efficient method.

a. True
b. False
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: False

Explanation:
Early MLS with mechanical scanned array used a varying audio tone to encode the pointing angle on the scanning beam pattern. The FAA adopted the time interval between successive passages of the unmodulated beam as an efficient means of angle encoding.


28)   What is the typical scanning rate of the MLS antenna?

a. 20,000°/sec
b. 10000°/sec
c. 500°/sec
d. 37°/sec
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: 20,000°/sec

Explanation:
The very high scanning rate of 20,000°/sec provides about 40 samples per second of the angle data, a rate ten times higher than that needed to control the aircraft.


29)   MLS ESA works on the principle of phase shifting.

a. True
b. False
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: True

Explanation:
An Electronically scanned array antenna is an array of radiating elements with a feed network incorporating variable propagation delays. These arrays cause the antenna pattern to rotate by “phase shifting” the RF signal.


30)   Which of the following is not a reason for not using the basic GPS for landing systems?

a. Accuracy
b. Integrity
c. Availability of satellites
d. Number of users
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Number of users

Explanation:
The primary reason for not using basic GPS for landing systems is because does not provide the accuracy that is required for landing, it lacks a monitoring system and the availability of a sufficient number of satellites to provide location information.


31)   Which of the following is supplemented with GPS to provide non-precision and Category I approaches?

a. Primary radar
b. WAAS
c. ILS
d. MLS
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: WAAS

Explanation:
For non-precision and Category I precision approaches, the limitations by the GPS is mitigated by the FAA’s Wide Area Augmentation System. It may be supplemented with local differential GPS stations located near runways.


32)   Which of the following is not true with respect to WAAS?

a. Which of the following is not true with respect to WAAS?
b. Uses ground integrity broadcast
c. Provide precision approaches for Category III C
d. Provide GPS ranging function
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Provide precision approaches for Category III C

Explanation:
WAAS addresses the limitations by providing Wide area differential GPS error correction, a ground integrity broadcast, and a GPS ranging function from three or four geostationary satellites providing additional availability.


33)   Which of the following is required to support Category II and III with DGPS?

a. High- integrity ground to air data link
b. ILS system
c. Transponder
d. DME station
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: High- integrity ground to air data link

Explanation:
To support Category II and III landing operations, the additional requirement for accuracy and monitor-response times can be achieved with a differential GPD reference station and a high-integrity ground to air data link located near the runway.


34)   Which of the following errors are not rectified by LDGPS?

a. Satellite ephemerides
b. Ionosphere propagation effects
c. Multi-path signal interference
d. Clock offset
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Multi-path signal interference

Explanation:
LDGPS operation leads to the nearly complete cancellation of errors due to satellite ephemerides, clock offset, selective availability, and ionospheric propagation, leaving mainly those errors due to multipath signal interference and receiver noise.


35)   The DME station can supply integrity warnings.

a. True
b. False
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: False

Explanation:
The runway reference station can supply integrity warnings within the required response time of 1 to 2 sec. These are located near the runway.


36)   The accuracy of the SPS code solution is satisfactory for precision approaches.

a. True
b. False
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: False

Explanation:
GPS receivers were capable of about ten solutions per second, which is sufficient for coupled flight. The accuracy of the SPS code solution without augmentation is satisfactory for nonprecision approaches.


37)   The pilot has no other option than to use FLOLS to land the aircraft.

a. True
b. False
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: False

Explanation:
The pilot has the option of coupling the autopilot to the ACLS, flying the aircraft from “needles” controlled by ACLS data, or being talked down by a shipboard controller. A manual carrier landing with ACLS resembles a land based ground controlled approach.


38)   The relative speed of the aircraft with respect to the carrier deck is _________

a. Lower
b. Greater
c. Zero
d. Indifferent
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Lower

Explanation:
Jet aircraft approach the carrier deck with at airspeeds up to 125 knots. Their speed relative to the deck is lower due to the “wind over the deck,” which is normally about 30 knots.


39)   What is the inclination of the glide slope with respect to the moving flight deck?

a.
b.
c. 3.5°
d.
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: 4°

Explanation:
The approach path, often called the glide slope, is in the vertical plane containing the runway center line and is inclined 3.5° relative to the sea at the touchdown point and 4° relative to the moving flight deck.


40)   Which of the following causes a “burble” at the threshold and along the glide path?

a. High speed landings
b. Low visibility
c. Heaving motion of ship
d. Steady state wake
Answer  Explanation 

ANSWER: Steady state wake

Explanation:
Steady state wake caused by the relative wind over the ship’s deck and around the superstructure, Which causes a “burble” at the threshold and the glide path.