1) __________ is the exponential path tangent to a horizontal plane several feet below the runway? a. Flare b. Ground roll c. Taxi d. Tide
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2) What is done to reduce the error in localizer as the runway is approached? a. Gain scheduling b. Reduce speed c. Increase angle of attack d. Flare
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3) British Trident and U.S. L-1011 aircraft was certified for category III A operations. a. True b. False
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4) Which of the following systems use a collection of radio transmitting stations to guide an aircraft to a particular runway? a. ILS b. GPS c. VOR d. RADAR
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5) How many ILS systems does an airport require? a. 0 b. 1 c. Depends upon aircraft size d. Depends upon density of traffic on the airspace
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6) _______ standardized the signal in space for the ILS ground transmitting equipment? a. ISRO b. FAA c. ICAO standards and recommended practices d. NASA
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7) Where is the localizer antenna placed? a. Beyond the stop end of the runway b. Start of the runway c. Along the runway d. Air traffic control
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8) Which of the following is used to detect the failure in an ILS? a. Fail safe ILS b. Radiation monitors c. ILS detector d. ILS failure system is not used anywhere
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9) What is the type of polarization is used in ILS systems? a. Horizontal polarization b. Vertical polarization c. Circular polarization d. No polarization
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10) What is the frequency at which the marker beacons operate? a. 65 MHZ b. 50 MHZ c. 150 MHZ d. 75 MHz
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11) Localizer, Glide slope and DME frequencies are paired to each other. a. True b. False
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12) What is the type of receiver used for marker beacon? a. Heterodyne b. Super Heterodyne c. Capacitative pick off d. Crystal controlled
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13) Which of the following cause multi path signals? a. Low transmission power b. Ground reflection c. Low frequency transmission d. High frequency transmission
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14) Which of the following transmits an audio Morse code? a. Localizer b. Glide slope transmitter c. DME d. Marker beacons
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15) ______________ provides deviation when the aircraft is displaced laterally from the vertical plane of the runway? a. Localizer b. Glide slope transmitter c. DME d. Marker beacons
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16) What is the signal that are added to the localizer signal, if the beam is narrow, to provide signal coverage? a. Localizer plus b. Difference signal c. Sum signal d. Clearance signal
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17) What type of antenna is used in the localizer? a. Long periodic antenna b. Helical antenna c. Dipole antenna d. Parabolic antenna
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18) Clearance signals can be transmitted from the same array antenna as the localizer signal. a. True b. False
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19) What is the type of glide slope that depends on the reflection of signals by the ground? a. Reflection slope b. Refraction glide slope c. Image glide slope d. Direct glide slope
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20) What is the radiation pattern of the marker beacons? a. Triangle b. Circle c. Square d. Fan shape
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21) What is the main weakness of the ILS system? a. Less power b. Less range c. More noise d. Environment sensitivity
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22) What does the MLS use to overcome the weakness of ILS system? a. Narrow beam width antennas b. More power c. Filers for separating noise d. Array of antennas
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23) Which of the following is not one of the basic components of the MLS system? a. Azimuth ground station b. Elevation ground station c. DME d. Radar
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24) Why is a back azimuth station used in some MLS? a. Better range b. Less noise c. Missed approach d. Back up for main azimuth station
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25) What is the number of channels in the MLS system? a. 10 b. 50 c. 4000 d. 200
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26) Which of the following determines the required transmission power in MLS? a. Noise b. Bit error rate c. Runway length d. Aircraft size
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27) Using an audio tone to encode angles is an efficient method. a. True b. False
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28) What is the typical scanning rate of the MLS antenna? a. 20,000°/sec b. 10000°/sec c. 500°/sec d. 37°/sec
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29) MLS ESA works on the principle of phase shifting. a. True b. False
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30) Which of the following is not a reason for not using the basic GPS for landing systems? a. Accuracy b. Integrity c. Availability of satellites d. Number of users
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31) Which of the following is supplemented with GPS to provide non-precision and Category I approaches? a. Primary radar b. WAAS c. ILS d. MLS
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32) Which of the following is not true with respect to WAAS? a. Which of the following is not true with respect to WAAS? b. Uses ground integrity broadcast c. Provide precision approaches for Category III C d. Provide GPS ranging function
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33) Which of the following is required to support Category II and III with DGPS? a. High- integrity ground to air data link b. ILS system c. Transponder d. DME station
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34) Which of the following errors are not rectified by LDGPS? a. Satellite ephemerides b. Ionosphere propagation effects c. Multi-path signal interference d. Clock offset
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35) The DME station can supply integrity warnings. a. True b. False
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36) The accuracy of the SPS code solution is satisfactory for precision approaches. a. True b. False
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37) The pilot has no other option than to use FLOLS to land the aircraft. a. True b. False
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38) The relative speed of the aircraft with respect to the carrier deck is _________ a. Lower b. Greater c. Zero d. Indifferent
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39) What is the inclination of the glide slope with respect to the moving flight deck? a. 3° b. 5° c. 3.5° d. 4°
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40) Which of the following causes a “burble” at the threshold and along the glide path? a. High speed landings b. Low visibility c. Heaving motion of ship d. Steady state wake
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